ALLAH THE FOULMOUTHED!

In this post I will share examples of Allah using foul language in describing and/or insulting disbelievers.

For instance, Allah likens unbelievers to dogs:

Recite unto them the tale of him to whom We gave Our revelations, but he sloughed them off, so Satan overtook him and he became of those who lead astray. And had We willed We could have raised him by their means, but he clung to the earth and followed his own lust. Therefor his likeness is as the likeness of a dog: if thou attackest him he panteth with his tongue out, and if thou leavest him he panteth with his tongue out. Such is the likeness of the people who deny Our revelations. Narrate unto them the history (of the men of old), that haply they may take thought. Evil as an example are the folk who denied Our revelations, and were wont to wrong themselves. He whom Allah leadeth, he indeed is led aright, while he whom Allah sendeth astray – they indeed are losers. S. 7:175-178 Pickthall

Allah also claims that the disbelievers are filthy:

You who believe, associators are nothing but filthy (najasun), so they should not approach the Hallowed Mosque after this year that they still have. If you should fear destitution, God will enrich you out of His bounty if He so wishes. God is Aware, Wise. S. 9:28 (T.B. Irving https://www.islamawakened.com/quran/9/st47.htm)

Allah further describes folks who oppose him and Muhammad as bastards:

Do not obey every contemptible oathmonger, any faultfinder who goes around spreading gossip, hindering good, defiant, vicious, brawling, and a bastard (zaneemin) besides that even though he possesses both money and children. S. 68:10-14 (T.B. Irving https://www.islamawakened.com/quran/68/st47.htm)

Moreover, Allah classifies Jews who are ignorant of the Torah as dumb asses/donkeys:

Those who were entrusted with the burden of the Torah but failed to bear its obligations, are actually like a jackass (al-himari) carrying a load of books. Worse (in fact) is the example of a nation who rejects the signs of Allah; and Allah does not guide the nation of evil doers. S. 62:5 (Dr. Munir Munshey)

Allah even goes as far as to classify the disbelievers, be they Jews, Christians, idolators, etc., as the being the very worst of all beasts/creatures:

The unbelievers among the People of the Book and the pagans shall in the fire of Hell abide for ever. They are the vilest of all creatures (sharru al-bariyyati). S. 98:6 (N.J. Dawood https://www.islamawakened.com/quran/98/st50.htm)

Those who disbelieved among the People of the Scripture and the polytheists will abide eternally in the fire of Hell. They are the vilest of all beings. (Talal Itani https://www.islamawakened.com/quran/98/st88.htm)

This means disbelieving Jews, Christians, idolators are even worse than rodents, dogs, asses, swine, adulterers, fornicators, murderers, pedophiles, demons and even Satan himself!     

FURTHER READING

MORE EXAMPLES OF MUHAMMAD’S FOUL MOUTH

Muhammad’s Vulgar Language Exposed

MUHAMMAD AND ANAL SEX

Islam – The Religion of Pedophilia

ISLAMIC INCEST

The Quran’s Confused Stance on Sexual Ethics

REVISITING ISLAM’S GROSS SEXUAL ETHICS

Al-Qurtubi’s Explanation of Mary’s Conception

HEBREWS 2:9 & SYRIAC CHRISTOLOGY

According to the underlying Greek text of Hebrews 2:9, Jesus is described as tasting death for every man by the grace of God:

“But we do see Him who was made for a little while lower than the angels—Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, so that by the grace of God (chariti theou) He might taste death for everyone.” Legacy Standard Bible (LSB)

The meaning here in the context is that God in his favor sent Jesus to become a flesh and blood human being for the express purpose of saving the children of God by making atonement for them in order crown them with glory:

“For it was fitting for Him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to perfect the author of their salvation through sufferings. For both He who sanctifies and those who are being sanctified are all of One; for which reason He is not ashamed to call them brothers, saying, ‘I will recount Your name to My brothers, In the midst of the assembly I will sing Your praise.’ And again, ‘I will put My trust in Him.’ And again, ‘Behold, I and the children whom God has given Me.’ Therefore, since the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself likewise also partook of the same, that through death He might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil, and might free those who through fear of death were subject to slavery all their lives. For assuredly He does not give help to angels, but He gives help to the seed of Abraham. Therefore, He had to be made like His brothers in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. For since He Himself was tempted in that which He has suffered, He is able to come to help those who are tempted.” Hebrews 2:10-18 LSB  

There is, however, a minor variant attested by a few extant manuscripts and early Christians, which is drastically different:

“but we see Jesus, for a short time made lower than the angels, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, so that apart from God (choris theou) he might taste death on behalf of everyone.” Lexham English bible (LEB)

But yet, we are continuously seeing Jesus – having been made inferior for a brief time beside agents – having been encompassed with glory (or: crowned by a good reputation) and with honor (or: in value) on account of (or: through) the effect of the experience of death (or: Now in this certain short bit of time, we keep on observing Jesus – having been made less because of the result of the suffering from, and which was, death – now having been encircled with the Victor’s wreath in a manifestation which calls forth praise and with esteemed respect, at the side of the folks with the message), so that by the grace of and from God (or: for God’s grace; in the favor which is God; [note: MSS 0243 & 1739, plus a Vulgate MS and in the works of Origen, Ambrose and Jerome and quoted by various writers down to the 11th century, the reading is: APART FROM GOD]He might taste of death over [the situation and condition of] all mankind (or: for and on behalf of everyone). Jonathan Mitchell New Testament (JMNT; capital and italicized emphasis mine)

In this reading Christ died apart from God, not because of God’s grace. Presumably, the meaning is that God permitted Jesus to undergo suffering and humiliation without any divine intervention, without God stepping in to prevent his beloved Son from undergoing severe torture and death.  

Noted liberal NT textual critic Bart D. Ehrman discusses this variant reading at some length, and explains it’s significance:

HEBREWS AND A FORSAKEN JESUS

Luke’s portrayal of Jesus stands in contrast not only to that of Mark, but also to that of other New Testament authors, including the unknown author of the Epistle to the Hebrews, who appears to presuppose knowledge of passion traditions in which Jesus was terrified in the face of death and died with no divine succor or support, as can be seen in the resolution of one of the most interesting textual problems of the New Testament.12

The problem occurs in a context that describes the eventual subjugation of all things to Jesus, the Son of Man. Again, I have placed in brackets the textual variants in question.

For when [God] subjects to him all things, he leaves nothing that is not subjected to him. But we do not yet see all things subjected to him. But we do see Jesus, who, having been made for a little while lower than the angels, was crowned with glory and honor on account of his suffering of death, so that [by the grace of God/apart from God] he might taste death for everyone. (Heb. 2:8­9)

Although almost all the surviving manuscripts state that Jesus died for all people “by the grace of God” (CHARITI THEOU), a couple of others state, instead, that he died “apart from God” (CHORIS THEOU). There are good reasons for thinking that the latter, however, was the original reading of the Epistle to the Hebrews.

I don’t need to go into the intricacies of the manuscript support for the reading “apart from God” except to say that even though it occurs in only two documents of the tenth century, one of these (Ms. 1739) is known to have been produced from a copy that was at least as ancient as our earliest manuscripts. Of yet greater interest, the early­third century scholar Origen tells us that this was the reading of the majority of manuscripts of his own day. Other evidence also suggests its early popularity: it was found in manuscripts known to Ambrose and Jerome in the Latin West, and it is quoted by a range of church writers down to the eleventh century. And so, despite the fact that it is not widely attested among our surviving manuscripts, the reading was at one time supported by strong external evidence.

When one turns from external to internal evidence, there can be no doubt concerning the superiority of this poorly attested variant. We have already seen that scribes were far more likely to make a reading that was hard to understand easier, rather than make an easy reading harder. This variant provides a textbook case of the phenomenon. Christians in the early centuries commonly regarded Jesus’s death as the supreme manifestation of God’s grace. To say, though, that Jesus died “apart from God” could be taken to mean any number of things, most of them unpalatable. Since scribes must have created one of these readings out of the other, there is little question concerning which of the two is more likely the corruption.

But was the alteration deliberate? Advocates of the more commonly attested text (“grace of God”) have naturally had to claim that the change was not made on purpose (otherwise their favored text would almost certainly be the modification). By virtue of necessity, then, they have devised alternative scenarios to explain the accidental origin of the more difficult reading. Most commonly, it is simply supposed that because the words in question are similar in appearance (CHARITI/ CHORIS), a scribe inadvertently mistook the word grace for the preposition apart from.

This view, however, seems a shade unlikely. Is a negligent or absentminded scribe likely to have changed his text by writing a word used less frequently in the New Testament (“apart from”) or one used more frequently (“grace,” four times as common)? Is he likely to have created a phrase that occurs nowhere else in the New Testament (“apart from God”) or one that occurs more than twenty times (“by the grace of God”)? Is he likely to have produced a statement, even by accident, that is bizarre and troubling or one that is familiar and easy? Surely, it’s the latter: readers typically mistake unusual words for common ones and simplify what is complex, especially when their minds have partially strayed. Thus, even a theory of carelessness supports the less­attested reading (“apart from God”) as original.

The most popular theory among those who think that the phrase apart from God is not original is that the reading was created as a marginal note: a scribe read in Heb. 2:8 that “all things” are to be subjected to the lordship of Christ, and immediately thought of 1 Cor. 15:27:

“For all things will be subjected under his [Christ’s] feet.” But when it says that “all things will be subjected,” it is clear that it means all things except for the one who subjected them [i.e., God himself is not among the things subjected to Christ at the end].

According to this theory, the scribe copying Hebrews 2 wanted it to be clear here as well that when the text indicates that everything is to be subjected to Christ, this does not include God the Father. To protect the text from misconstrual, the scribe then inserted an explanatory note in the margin of Heb. 2:8 (as a kind of cross­reference to 1 Cor. 15:27), pointing out that nothing is left unsubjected to Christ, “except for God.” This note was subsequently transferred by a later, inattentive, scribe into the text of the next verse, Heb. 2:9, where he thought it belonged.

Despite the popularity of the solution, it is probably too clever by half, and requires too many dubious steps to work. There is no manuscript that attests both readings in the text (i.e., the correction in the margin or text of verse 8, where it would belong, and the original text of verse 9). Moreover, if a scribe thought that the note was a marginal correction, why did he find it in the margin next to verse 8 rather than verse 9? Finally, if the scribe who created the note had done so in reference to 1 Corinthians, would he not have written “except for God” (EKTOS THEOU—the phrase that actually occurs in the 1 Corinthians passage) rather than “apart from God” (CHORIS THEOU—a phrase not found in 1 Corinthians)?

In sum, it is extremely difficult to account for the phrase apart from God if the phrase by the grace of God was the original reading of Heb. 2:9. At the same time, whereas a scribe could scarcely be expected to have said that Christ died “apart from God,” there is every reason to think that this is precisely what the author of Hebrews said. For this less­attested reading is also more consistent with the theology of Hebrews (“intrinsic probabilities”). Never in this entire Epistle does the word grace (CHARIS) refer to Jesus’s death or to the benefits of salvation that accrue as a result of it. Instead, it is consistently connected with the gift of salvation that is yet to be bestowed upon the believer by the goodness of God (see especially Heb. 4:16; also 10:29; 12:15; 13:25). To be sure, Christians historically have been more influenced by other New Testament authors, notably Paul, who saw Jesus’s sacrifice on the cross as the supreme manifestation of the grace of God. But Hebrews does not use the term in this way, even though scribes who thought that this author was Paul may not have realized that.

On the other hand, the statement that Jesus died “apart from God”—enigmatic when taken in isolation—makes compelling sense in its broader literary context in the book of Hebrews. Whereas this author never refers to Jesus’s death as a manifestation of divine “grace,” he repeatedly emphasizes that Jesus died a fully human, shameful death, totally removed from the realm whence he came, the realm of God; his sacrifice, as a result, was accepted as the perfect expiation for sin. Moreover, God did not intervene in Jesus’s passion and did nothing to minimize his pain. Thus, for example, Heb. 5:7 speaks of Jesus, in the face of death, beseeching God with loud cries and tears. In 12:2 he is said to endure the “shame” of his death, not because God sustained him, but because he hoped for vindication. Throughout this Epistle, Jesus is said to experience human pain and death, like other human beings “in every respect.” His was not an agony attenuated by special dispensation.

Yet more significant, this is a major theme of the immediate context of Heb. 2:9, which emphasizes that Christ lowered himself below the angels to share fully in blood and flesh, experience human sufferings, and die a human death. To be sure, his death is known to bring salvation, but the passage says not a word about God’s grace as manifest in Christ’s work of atonement. It focuses instead on Christology, on Christ’s condescension into the transitory realm of suffering and death. It is as a full human being that Jesus experiences his passion, apart from any succor that might have been his as an exalted being. The work he began at his condescension he completes in his death, a death that had to be “apart from God.”

How is it that the reading “apart from God,” which can scarcely be explained as a scribal alteration, conforms to the linguistic preferences, style, and theology of the Epistle to the Hebrews, while the alternative reading “by the grace of God,” which would have caused scribes no difficulties at all, stands at odds both with what Hebrews says about the death of Christ and with the way it says it? Heb. 2:9 appears originally to have said that Jesus died “apart from God,” forsaken, much as he is portrayed in the Passion narrative of Mark’s Gospel.

CONCLUSION

In each of the three cases we have considered, there is an important textual variant that plays a significant role in how the passage in question is interpreted. It is obviously important to know whether Jesus was said to feel compassion or anger in Mark 1:41; whether he was calm and collected or in deep distress in Luke 22:43­44; and whether he was said to die by God’s grace or “apart from God” in Heb. 2:9. We could easily look at other passages as well, to get the sense of how important it is to know the words of an author if we want to interpret his message. (Ehrman, Misquoting Jesus: The Story Behind Who Changed the Bible and Why [HarperSanFrancisco, 2005], 5. Originals That Matter, pp. 144-149; emphasis mine)

With this in the background I am ready to explore how these variants affected the Syriac versions of Hebrews 2:9, and the impact this made on Christ’s Deity: HEBREWS 2:9 & SYRIAC CHRISTOLOGY PT. 2.

TITUS 2:13 & KJV

This article is taken from the following post: Titus 2:13 – “the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ”.

The following is an excerpt from Dr. Thomas Holland’s Crowned With Glory, ©2000, used with permission.

Titus 2:13 – “the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ”

“Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;”

Modern versions such as the NIV render this as, “While we wait for the blessed hope – the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ.” It is argued that the KJV incorrectly translated this passage and violated the Granville Sharpe Rule of Greek grammar. [1] Basically this rule states that the two nouns (God and Savior) refer to the same Person, Jesus Christ. They are correct in their understanding of this grammatical rule. They are incorrect in stating the Authorized Version has violated it.

The problem is not with the KJV, but rather a lack of understanding English grammar. In English, when two nouns are separated by the phrase and our, the context determines if the nouns refer to two persons or to two aspects of the same person. Consider the following sentence, “He was a great hero and our first president, General George Washington.” This statement is not referring to two persons but two aspects of the same person. Washington was a great hero by anyone’s standards, but he was not everyone’s president. He was our president.

The same is true of the phrase in Titus 2:13. When Christ returns He is coming as King of kings and Lord of lords (Revelation 19:16). He is returning as the great God (Titus 2:13Revelation 19:17). Therefore, He will return as everyone’s King, everyone’s Lord, as the great God over all. But He is not everyone’s Savior. He is only the Savior of those who have placed faith in Him. When He returns He is coming as the great God but He is also returning as our Savior, two aspects of the same Person.

This is illustrated elsewhere in Scripture. Consider the following two passages in the New Testament. In both cases two nouns are separated by the phrase and our. However, it is also clear that the two nouns refer to the same Person: God, who is our Father. In Galatians 1:4 we read, “Who gave himself for our sins, that he might deliver us from this present evil world, according to the will of God and our Father.” Likewise, in 1 Thessalonians 1:3 we read, “Remembering without ceasing your work of faith, and labour of love, and patience of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ, in the sight of God and our Father.” In both passages we know that God and Father are the same Person. They are separated by and our to convey the truth that the Eternal God over all is also our Father, thereby personalizing our relationship with Him.

The King James translation of Titus 2:13 is also consistent. In the Book of Titus we find the Greek phrase sotepos emon (Savior of us) used six times (1:3,4; 2:10,13; 3:4,6). Each time the Authorized Version consistently translates it as our Saviour. In the final analysis, we see that the KJV is harmonious in its use of Greek as well as in its proclamation of the deity of Christ.


[1] White, 267-270.

FURTHER READING

2 PETER 1:1 & KJV

2 PETER 1:1 & KJV

This post has been taken from the following: 2 Peter 1:1 – “of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ”.

The following is an excerpt from Dr. Thomas Holland’s Crowned With Glory, ©2000, used with permission.

2 Peter 1:1 – “of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ”

“Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:”

The Authorized Version has been accused of inconsistency in its translation of 2 Peter 1:1 when compared with its translation of 2 Peter 1:11. In the later passage we read, “For so an entrance shall be ministered unto you abundantly into the everlasting kingdom of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ.”In making such an accusation, some have provided the following comparison between 2 Peter 1:1 and 2 Peter 1:11.

1:1:       tou theou emon kai soteros Iesou Christou     

1:11:     tou kuriou emon kai soteros Iesou Christou   

It is then noted that the only difference between the two verses is the substitution of kuriou (Lord) in verse eleven instead of theou (God) as found in verse one. Therefore, according to the Greek, verse one must be translated as “our God and Savior” in order to be consistent. [1] Since the KJV does not do this, it is looked upon as mistranslating this passage.

The point is well taken, and would be correct if the Greek text that underlies the KJV read as presented. However, it does not. The Greek text used by the King James translators was Beza’s text of 1589 and 1598. There we find an additional emon (our) at 2 Peter 1:1 that is not provided by those who call this a mistranslation. The two are compared below with Beza’s text presented first.

Tou theou emon kai soteros emon Iesou Christou

Tou theou emon kai soteros Iesou Christou

The translation of Beza’s text is correct and consistent in the Authorized Version, and is consistent since the additional emon appears in 2 Peter 1:1 and not 2 Peter 1:11.

The question exists why Beza provided the additional emon at 2 Peter 1:1 that is not found in other Greek texts. Dr. Bruce Metzger may supply the answer. Although not discussing this passage, Dr. Metzger does note the following concerning Beza:

Accompanied by annotations and his own Latin version, as well as Jerome’s Latin Vulgate, these editions (of Beza’s text from 1565, 1582, 1589, and 1598) contained a certain amount of textual information drawn from several Greek manuscripts which Beza had collated himself, as well as the Greek manuscripts collated by Henry Stephanus, son of Robert Stephanus. [2]

Since the Greek text of Robert Stephanus did not contain the addition, and the Greek text of Beza does, it is logical to assume that Beza added the emon at 2 Peter 1:1 based on the various manuscripts that he possessed (or the ones possessed by Henry Stephanus). We would be mistaken to presume that all existing manuscripts used in the sixteenth century are still in existence today. Some have undoubtedly passed away over the process of time. Regardless, the inclusion of the extra emon in this passage provides evidence of its preservation. It is certainly not a mistranslation on the part of the KJV.


[1] White, 268.

[2] Metzger, The Text Of The New Testament, 105.

FURTHER READING

TITUS 2:13 & KJV